Luke 20:44
David therefore calleth him Lord, how is he then his son?
David therefore called him Lord,.... Or, "my Lord", as the Syriac and Ethiopic versions read; or, "his Lord", as the Arabic version. This is the inference from the words before cited
Ps 110:1, upon which the following question is asked,
how is he then his son? how can these things be reconciled? in what sense can he be both his Lord and son?
See Gill on "Matthew 22:45".
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