Romans 3:1
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
What advantage then hath the Jew?.... If he is not properly a Jew, who is born of Jewish parents, and brought up in the customs, rites, and religion of the Jewish nation, but anyone of whatsoever nation, that is born again of water, and of the Spirit; where is the superior excellency of the Jew to the Gentile? A man may as well be born and brought up a Heathen as a Jew; the one has no more advantages than the other by his birth and education: it may be rendered, "what hath the Jew more?" or "what has he superfluous" or "abundant?" the phrase answers to the Hebrew Mdal Nwrty hm in Ecclesiastes 1:3, which is rendered, "what profit hath a man?" and in Ecclesiastes 6:8, Mkxl rtwy hm, "what hath a wise man more", &c. and in Romans 3:11, Mdal rty hm, "what is a man better?" the first of these passages the Septuagint render by tiv perisseia, "what abundance?" and the last by ti
perisson, "what more", or "superfluous", or "abundant?" the phrase used by the apostle here:
or what profit is there of circumcision? since that which is outward in the flesh profits not unless the law is kept, otherwise circumcision is no circumcision; and if an uncircumcised Gentile keeps the law, he is a better man than a circumcised Jew; yea, he judges and condemns him; for the only true circumcision is internal, spiritual, and in the heart. To this the apostle answers in the Romans 3:2.